Is baptism for the dead Biblical?

Mormons use 1 Cor 15:29 to prove they must redeem or baptize the dead. "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all?" Why are they then baptized for the dead? The first thing that must be determined, is Paul making a statement? No, because both sentences end in a question mark. The second thing is that each time Paul wrote one of his letters, he was always writing to the churches. So one Christian to another Christian(s) would mean that he was always in first person; you, I, us, we, me. However, here we see that Paul is talking about someone else because he says "they" in both sentences. If he was addressing the Christians he would have said you, I us, me, or we. So who are they?

In Matt 22:23 it says, "The same day came to him the Sadducees, which say that there is no resurrection, ---." In the middle of 1 Cor 15:29, we read, "--- if the dead rise not at all?" So Paul was obviously talking about the Sadducees or a group like them, who don't believe in the resurrection. However, let's assume the Mormons are right, and we should redeem or save the dead by baptizing them by proxy into the LDS church. If that's true, how many times would Paul have taught it, or the twelve apostles, or Jesus Christ? When we research this we find that 1 Cor 15:29 is the only verse in the Bible that deals with this subject. Then we find that in this verse, Paul is putting it down and not lifting it up. And even more amazing, it is no where to be found in the Book of Mormon.

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